Vanderhoven7's question (to Wonderment) of "Why do you think God made sure
His full name did not appear once in the NT ..." is very presumptuous
(though perhaps it was not intended to be such). I say that because it
incorporates the presumption (or claim) that "God made sure His full
name did not appear once in the" ancient manuscripts of the NT despite
the fact it has not been proven God did such. [It is false/inaccurate to
say it is not in any copy of the NT, since the name is in the NWT
copies of the NT and in copies of other translations made after the year
1800, and in many earlier translations of the NT made after the year
1500, as documented by the WT. This observation allows another question
to be asked. Namely the following. If God both exists and was opposed to
his full name appearing even once in the NT, then why did he avoid
preventing his name from appearing in the NT of the NWT, in the Emphatic
Diaglott, and in many non-WT translations of the NT into Hebrew and
other non-English languages? Some of those translations were made
for the purpose of converting people who worshiped a god/God or gods
(that is, what the people considered to be such) other than Jesus and
Jehovah/YHWH.]
Even if YHWH God exists we do NOT know God made
sure His full name did not appear once in any ancient manuscript of
the NT. What we do know is that, if hypothetically God exists, then God
allowed/permitted His full name to not appear once in the known extant
ancient copies of the NT. In other words, even if God exists, God may have been passive instead of active
in regards to his His full name not appearing once in the known extant
copies of the NT. Even if the full name never appeared in any ancient
manuscript (whether a copy or an original) of any book of the the NT,
that does not mean God made sure that was the case.
Vanderhoven7,
a better question to ask to someone who is convinced that God exists
and who is convinced that God's full name was never in any ancient
manuscript of the NT, is the following. "Why do you think God allowed
(or avoided preventing) his full name to be completely excluded from all
ancient manuscripts of the NT?"
Vanderhoven7, I agree that compared to what the NT often says about Jesus (including about the importance of the Jesus Christ in the personal lives of Christians), Jesus is all but marginalized by the religion which is called "Jehovah's Witnesses". That is because the religion teaches that modern-day JW are to avoid worshiping Jesus and are to even avoid praying to Jesus. As a result, even if Jesus exists, faithful Jehovah's Witnesses (even ones who consider themselves part the anointed ones, even the governing body) can NOT have a personal relationship with Jesus (unless the relationship is one-sided, with Jesus contacting a JW, but not a JW also contacting Jesus or communicating to Jesus). In contrast the WT encourages JWs to have a personal relationship with Jehovah God. The WT's JW religion is a more Judaic leaning version of Christianity than the vast majority of the types of modern-day Christianity.
Vanderhoven7, regarding your comment of the name in which people would be baptized, you left out Matthew 28:19. That verse says baptizing is to be done "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit". Note the order of the 'names' and that such might indicate an implied degree of priority.